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Old 02-10-2008, 02:11 PM
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Default Re: Why Have Sharia Law In The West?

Quote:
Foxhole said View Post
There's a key difference: Muslims in the US don't want Shari'a. Iraqis in Iraq do want democracy.


This argument is such tripe. How does one know what the Iraqis *truly* want? Did they petition the US government to invade their country and remove Saddam? What about the fact that a lot of groups, both Sunni and Shia, boycotted elections because they didn't feel it was valid? What about the fact that the Iraqi people wanted to insert a clause into the Iraqi constitution regarding the Shari'ah, but it was rejected by Paul Bremer who was not an elected representative of either the American or Iraqi people? What about the Muslims in Afghanistan? Can we truly say that they don't want Shari'ah when their Supreme Court in the purportedly legitimate government of Hamid Karzai wanted to implement a ruling against an apostate, but their judicial independence was infringed upon by Hamid Karzai after immense international pressure?

I would contest the claim that Muslims don't want Shari'ah. A recent poll conducted in the four most populous Muslim countries indicated that Muslims want Shari'ah. Moreover, in elections where Islamists are given fair opportunities to compete against non-Shari'ah proponents, they have done extremely successful.

For a detailed explanation of the democratic and Islamist arguments for Shari'ah, see the following post:
The Ballot or the Bullet: Islamists and Democracy | Global Intifada
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