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Old 01-27-2008, 01:48 PM
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Default Re: Why Have Sharia Law In The West?

Quote:
Originally Posted by IbnMardhiyah View Post
Personally I'm neither for, nor against its implementation here in the West. If its going to be used, then only if done by mutual acceptance by both / all parties in a dispute.

And as for you asking "isn't the law of the land fair enough" - let's refine the question a bit and ask "Who's law is more just? God's law or man's?"

For example in the issue of inheritance, in Islam a man [generally] gets 2x what the female does. If you don't know any better, then you might think this is unfair and unjust until you see that in Islam, its incumbent upon the men only to provide for their families out of their own wealth, but its not incumbent upon the women to do the same. So the man likely stands to gain either the same or even less, in the distribution of inheritance, than a woman does.

There are many other examples.
I understand.

I mean more or less the judicial system is fair and appropriate for Muslims in the West. There is not a law that I can think of that is unfair to Muslims. For inheritance, a man can write in his will that he will give 2x the share to the male over the female. We do not need to have Sharia law to make it so, for example.
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