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Old 01-27-2008, 01:42 PM
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IbnMardhiyah
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Default Re: Why Have Sharia Law In The West?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Kona_Silat View Post
This something that I seem to encounter quite often in the news and also hearing from Islamophobes about their "concern" about Muslim population in the West. My question is why would Muslims living in the Western world want to have Sharia Law implemented upon themselves? Isn't the law of the land enough and fair to Muslim concerns as it is? How would our way of life be hindered if we did not have Sharia law?
Personally I'm neither for, nor against its implementation here in the West. If its going to be used, then only if done by mutual acceptance by both / all parties in a dispute.

And as for you asking "isn't the law of the land fair enough" - let's refine the question a bit and ask "Who's law is more just? God's law or man's?"

For example in the issue of inheritance, in Islam a man [generally] gets 2x what the female does. If you don't know any better, then you might think this is unfair and unjust until you see that in Islam, its incumbent upon the men only to provide for their families out of their own wealth, but its not incumbent upon the women to do the same. So the man likely stands to gain either the same or even less, in the distribution of inheritance, than a woman does.

There are many other examples.
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