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dreamdeferred said
Akhi, I'm not sure I want to spend too much time on this as I could honestly argue convincingly for either position (in terms of madhab vs la madhab) but I will say that the argument as framed in your thread title is highly misleading. We simply cannot approach this topic as "Islam vs Madhabs". As you've noted, Islam is a religion predicated on two sources (Quran and Sunnah) but these sources require interpretative mediation. As such differences of opinion will always exist in the absence of crystal clear injunctions. Also...there is a distinction between Shari'ah and Fiqh that your post above does not account for and as a result it muddles the discussion at hand.
With regards to your last comment..........no serious scholars would accept that argument as legitimate so it's a moot point.
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Thanks for your opinion bro. Just for elaboration, how do you discern crystal clear injunctions from hazy injunctions? As regards to distinction between Sharia'ah and Fiqh, it is difficult to really separate the two with clear boundaries, as Islamic jurisprudence takes different paths with different madhabs.
Whats funny is that the last comment actually came from a pretty serious scholar back in the motherland.