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Originally Posted by bihari
And what's wrong with a Mutazilite? Do you even know what a Mutazilite is?
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If you know what a Mutazilite is, why would you ask a Sunni what's wrong with a Mutazilite?
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Originally Posted by bihari
Again, the Qur'an was meant to be interpreted by believers, hence it says "oh ye who believe" in various places, NOT 'oh scholars' or 'oh ulema'
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The Qur'an also tells us to "ask those who know" if we do not know.
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Originally Posted by bihari
if people blindly follow the ulema...bad things happen as seen here; a historical example of what happens when people blindly follow the ulema:
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"Blindly follow" .. do you believe Ijmaa is a source of law?
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Originally Posted by bihari
I am sure you are aware of the Ottoman Turks, who ruled the Ottoman Empire. Anyways, the ruling Ottomans are famous for their practices of having not only four wives, but hundreds of harems and concubines. Now I hope you agree that extramarital sexual relations are never permissible in Islam. So how could this be allowed? The ulema of the time permitted such practices and people blindly followed and committed zina to major extents.
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023.005
YUSUFALI: Who abstain from sex,
023.006
YUSUFALI: Except with those joined to them in the marriage bond, or (the captives) whom their right hands possess,- for (in their case) they are free from blame,
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Originally Posted by bihari
Also, when the Ottoman Turks, forbade the slave trade of men and women, the ulema of Hijaz gave a fatwa saying that it was wrong to forbid slave trade, and even declared jihad against the Ottomans. So do you really believe that following these types of fatwas are the true Islam?
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I don't know which fatawa you're referring to, what the content of them was, what the daleel was, and who the ulema were. If you could cite that, it'd be helpful - though even if I did have that information, I'm hardly qualified to pass fatawa of my own.
Anyway, do you think the ulema of the Hijaz were upon kufr, or had strayed from Islam? If so, why?
Further, if the Ottoman scholars and the scholars of the Hijaz disagreed, then by definition there was no ijma.. correct?